Gini coefficients...

To follow up on my last post, where I may have gotten a little ruffled by Michaels' piece in the NLR, I wanted to point readers to a data source for international economic data. The OECD is an international organization, based in Paris, that offers lots of access to data and literature on many economic topics. The OECD just posted a report on income inequality in developed countries, which I look forward to reading. While quickly perusing the report, I did a spot check on the OECD's Gini estimates, and what did I find? Estimated Gini's for selected countries (mid-2000's):
Before Taxes and Transfers:
Germany - .507
France - .482
United States - .457
Denmark - .417
United Kingdom - .460
Italy - .557

After Taxes and Transfers:
Germany - .298
France - .281
United States - .381
Denmark - .232
United Kingdom - .335
Italy - .352

The different values here show that, in nearly all developed countries, tax policy redistributes income and thus, increases parity. Of course, the amount to which this redistribution occurs does vary significantly. Same direction, different degree.

Recall, from Michaels (linked above) --

A standard measure of economic inequality is through the Gini coefficient, where 0 represents perfect equality (everybody makes the same), and 1 perfect inequality (one person makes everything). The Gini coefficient for the us in 2006 was 0.470 (back in 1968 it was 0.386). That of Germany today is 0.283, that of France, 0.327.

Obviously he was pulling his data from a different source, but doesn't it seem like just maybe he was being selectively misleading by reporting what is likely the US's Gini prior to taxes and transfers and France's and Germany's almost positively after? I don't doubt that there is a truly important point in criticizing America's policies that have allowed for an acceleration of income disparity, but I don't think the "cause" is helped by misleading statistics and inciting rhetoric (i.e. Move to Germany for the American dream).